"...every day my confusion grows..."

I'm confused.

I'm watching this programme about the first pregnant man, and the thing that strikes me is that the man appears to be a woman who has undergone some hormone therapy as the initial part of a sex change operation; but the operation has not yet taken place, and s/he appears to still have all of their female reproductive organs intact.

I may be being really naive, or daft, or missing out on a really important point; but in what way is this the first pregnant man?

I'd really be happy if someone could clear up my confusion on this.

Cheers!


Edit: okay. So I know that with gender reassignment a person can take the opposite gender to that which they were born with; but in this specific case this process had not been completed. They still had all their female reproductive organs. Thus, from a purely biological perspective; she was a female. I just can't see it any other way...